Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp trường lần 2 môn tiếng Anh - Năm học 2017-2018

SECTION B. VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR

II. Choose the correct answer from A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences.

6. Several people were hurt in the accident but only one ________ to hospital.

 A. has taken B. was taking C. was taken D. has been taking

7. There are a lot of people ________ London everyday.

 A. visiting B. to visit C. has visited D. visit

8. If we don’t look after our environment, zebras could become a(an) ________ species.

 A. endangering B. endangered C. dangerous D. danger

9. Either John or his sisters ________ watching action movies.

 A. loves B. is fond of C. to enjoy D. enjoy

 

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Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp trường lần 2 môn tiếng Anh - Năm học 2017-2018
TRƯỜNG THCS 
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
 KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TRƯỜNG– LẦN 2
 Năm học 2017 - 2018
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH 9
Đề thi có 06 trang 
Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
ĐIỂM
HỌ TÊN, CHỮ KÝ GIÁM KHẢO
SỐ PHÁCH
Bằng số ...........................................................
Bằng chữ .........................................................
1 .......................................................................
2........................................................................
SECTION A. PRONOUNCIATION
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
1.	A. crime	 	B. hide	C. kite	 	D. ring
2.	A. passion 	 	B. essence 	C. pressure 	D. expression
3. 	A. farm	 	B. tame	C. table	D. fame
4. 	A. there	 	B. thought	C. mother	D. with
5. 	A. grown	 	B. shown 	C.crown 	D. known
Your answer:
1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
5. 
SECTION B. VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR
II. Choose the correct answer from A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences. 
6. Several people were hurt in the accident but only one ________ to hospital.
 	A. has taken	B. was taking	C. was taken	D. has been taking
7. There are a lot of people ________ London everyday.
 	A. visiting	B. to visit	C. has visited	 D. visit
8. If we don’t look after our environment, zebras could become a(an) ________ species.
 	A. endangering	B. endangered C. dangerous	 D. danger
9. Either John or his sisters ________ watching action movies.
 	A. loves	B. is fond of	 C. to enjoy	 D. enjoy 
10. This tool is dangerous ________ you should use it carefully.
 	A. so	B. or	 	C. whether	 D. if
11. A: “Would you mind if I shut the window?” – B: “________!”
 	A. Yes, please shut	B. Yes, I wouldn’t mind	
C. No, please do	D. No, don’t shut it
12. She prefers ________
A. going for a swim to study	B. going for a swim to studying
C. go for a swim to studying	D. go for a swim to study
13. If only I ________ a bird, I could fly freely to anywhere I want.
	A. am	B. was	C. were	D. would be
14. They are going to make ________ excursion next month.
	A. a two-week	B. two-week	C. two weeks’	D. a two-week’s
15. We have learned English ________ 2000.
A. in 	B. during 	C. for 	D. since
Your answer:
6. 
7. 
8. 
9. 
10. 
11. 
12. 
13. 
14. 
15. 
III. Complete the text with the correct form of the words in brackets.
BOY BANDS!
The pop world is full of “manufactured” bands. They often look wonderful and some of them are brilliant (16-DANCE) ________, too. But although they look (17-SENSATION) ________, their records are often boring. Some bands don’t ever sing or play very (18-WELL) ________!
If they have to perform (19-LIFE) ________, they panic. They’re (20-FAME) ________, but they don’t have much talent! But UK pop band McFly are different. They are fantastic singers and amazing (21-MUSIC) ________. They are (22-REAL) ________ good at writing songs, too!
Their lastest album contains all kinds of (23-INTEREST) ________ music, including theatre music. That’s why the band’s (24-POPULAR) ________ is growing fast. In fact, McFly are so (25-SUCCESS) ________ they could become one of the big pop bands of history.
Your answer:
16. 
17. 
18. 
19. 
20. 
21. 
22. 
23. 
24. 
25. 
SECTION C. READING COMPREHENSION
IV. Complete this conversation using sentences marked by A-G. Write it in ‘Your answers’ part. There are TWO extra sentences which you do not need to use. 
Nam: So how is your English class going?
Binh: Not very bad, (26)______________.
Nam: Well, it is always difficult at first. You can improve your pronunciation by listening to English radio.
Binh: That is a good idea! (27) _____________I always seem to forget them.
Nam: I learn new words by writing them on pieces of paper and sticking them on my room on the wall. 
(28) ____________
Binh: Maybe I should try something like that.
Nam: (29) _____________.
Binh: What should I do with the vocabulary notebook?
Nam: (30) _____________. When you have time you can go through the notebook and study the words as much as you can
Binh: Thank you for your advice.
A. And you should have a vocabulary notebook.
B. I look at them every night before I go to sleep.
C. You should improve your English pronunciation.
D. but English prounciation is difficult for me.
E. Reading books is a good way of improving my English.
F. Well, whenever you hear or read a new word, you should write it down
G. But how do you learn new words?
Your answers:
26. 
27. 
28. 
29. 
30. 
V. Read the passage and choose the best answer from A, B, C or D.
BABE DIDRIKSON ZAHARIAS
Babe Didrikson Zaharias was one of the most extraordinary athletes of all time. She was a champion in basketball, track and field, and golf. She also swam, boxed, played baseball, and many other sports.
As the sixth child in her family, Zaharias was called “Baby”. That soon got shortened to “Babe”. One day, when she was in elementary school, her mother sent her to the grocery store to buy beef for dinner. On the way home, Babe spotted some boys playing baseball. She dropped her purchases and joined the game. An hour later, her angry mother showed up, looking for the groceries. Babe pointed to where she’d left them. A dog was happily eating the beef.
	Zaharias gained fame at the 1932 Olympic Games. She won gold medals in the javelin throw and the 80-meter hurdles, and set world records in both. In 1935, Zaharias began playing golf and was soon winning important championships in the sport. She won every major championship in women’s golf and helped make the sport popular for women. In 1950, she was named the greatest female athlete of the first half of the 20th century. Zaharias died of cancer in 1956, at the age of 45.
31. What sport is not mentioned as one that Babe Didrikson Zaharias did?
 A. Running. B. Basketball.	 C. Tennis. D. Swimming.
32. What does the author imply by giving the example of Babe’s buying beef?
 A. Babe was an absent-minded girl. 
 B. Babe was keen on playing ball.
 C. Babe was not a good child.
 D. Babe could help her mother with doing some shopping.
33. What word or phrase is similar in meaning to “purchases”?
 A. Buys. 	 B. What is bought.	 C. Goods. D. Food.
34. When did Babe set world records in javelin throw?
 A. When she was 30 years old. B. In 1935. 
 C. When she was also an excellent golfer.	 D. At the Olympic Games in 1932.
35. Which of the following sentences is NOT true?
 A. Zaharias won important championships in golf before the 1930’s.	
 B. Zaharias helped make golf popular for women after 1935.
 C. Zaharias died of cancer in 1956 when she was younger than 50.	
 D. Zaharias was named the greatest female athlete of her time.
Your answer:
31. 
32. 
33. 
34. 
35. 
VI. Fill ONE suitable word into each numbered blank. 
	JACK LONDON
Jack London, the famous American writer, was (36) _________ in San Fransico in 1876. When he was young, he (37) _________ to sell newspapers, work at a hotel and on a ship (38) ________ money. He was a student at a university for only a year. He had to leave it (39) _________ he was too poor to pay for (40) _________ university. In the years 1905 to 1909 Jack London wrote his best stories and novels. (41) _________ books were about working people (42) _________ came to find gold in Alaska, a cold country (43) ________ the North. Reading his books, we can learn that Jack London loved people, and he was sure that man is stronger than (44) _________ in the world. His life (45) _________ short, he died in 1916.
36. 
37. 
38. 
39.
40. 
41. 
42.
43. 
44. 
45.
SECTION D. WRITING
VII. Using the words given, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. 
46. Everyday I spend two hours learning English. 
 à Everyday it takes ...............................................................................................
47. It was a hot day so we had lunch outside in the garden.
 à It was such ...............................................................................................................	
48. I’ve been working for this company for ten years.
 à I started .......................................................................................................................
49. She can meet him if he arrives before eleven.
 à So ..................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
50. My grandma hates it when people make a noise in her house.
 à My grandma can’t .......
VIII. Write a letter (about 120 – 140 words) to your friend to tell about the TEACHER who you love best. Using the name “Hung” for your male teacher, “Linh” for your female teacher. The address and your name are printed for you. 
 217 Dao Tan Street
 Hai Phong, Viet Nam
 November 24th , 2016
 Phuong Nga
IX. Write an essay about 150 to 180 words on the following topic:
Advantages of using social networks.
ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM 
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI KHỐI 9 – LẦN 2
NĂM HỌC 2017-2018
SECTION A. PRONOUNCIATION
I. (5 x 1p = 5 points). Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from 
1. D
2. B
3. A
4. B 
5. C
SECTION B. VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR
II. (10 x 1p = 10 points). Choose the correct answer from A, B, C or D to complete each of .. 
6. C
7. A
8. B
9. D
10. A
11. C
12. B
13. C
14. A
15. D
III. (10 x 1p = 10 points). Complete the text with the correct form of the words in brackets.
16. dancers
17. sensational
18. well
19. live
20. famous
21. musicians
22. really
23. interesting
24. popularity
25. successful
SECTION C. READING COMPREHENSION
IV. (5 x 1p = 5 points). Complete this conversation using sentences marked by A-G.
26. D
27. G
28. B
29. A
30. F
V. (5 x 1p = 5 points). Read the passage and choose the best answer from A, B, C or D.
31. C
32. B
33. B
34. D
35. A
VI. (10 x 1p = 10 points). Fill ONE suitable word into each numbered blank. 
36. born
37. had/used
38. for
39. because
40. the
41. His/These
42. who
43. in
44. anything
45. was
SECTION D. WRITING
VII. (5 x 2p = 10 points). Using the words given, complete the second sentence so that it has ..
Mỗi vế đúng được 1 điểm, mỗi câu đúng được 2 điểm.
46. Everyday it takes me two hours ][ to learn English.
47. It was such a hot day ][ that we had lunch outside in the garden. 
48. I started working ][ for this company ten years ago.
49. So long as he ][ arrives before eleven, she can meet him.
50. My grandma can’t stand people ][ making a noise in her house.
VIII. (10 points) Write a letter (about 120 – 140 words) to your friend to tell about the TEACHER who you love best. Using the name “Hung” for your male teacher, “Linh” for your female teacher. The address and your name are printed. 
Yêu cầu:
+) HS hiểu cách viết một lá thư yêu cầu. Viết bằng văn phong “informal”/ Ngữ pháp đúng
 = 3 điểm.
+) Các ý cần có: nêu được ngoại hình, tính cách, sở thích,gia đình, môn học mà GV đó dạy/ 
 = 3 điểm.
IX. (15 points)Write an essay about 150 to 180 words on the following topic:
Advantages of using social networks
Yêu cầu:
+) Thể hiện rõ và nêu được những mặt có lợi của các mạng xã hội, biết sử dụng các liên từ, trạng từ: first, second, therefore, In short,.Biết sử dụng đúng văn phong của bài viết.
+) Ngữ pháp + Từ vựng: 4 điểm; Các ý hợp lý + diễn đạt rõ ràng: 5 điểm.
Tổng: 80/4 = 20 điểm.

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